Latihan Soal TKA Bahasa Inggris dan Kunci Jawaban SMA Kelas 12-2025, Soal Sumatif SAS/UAS

1. In a neurology ward, a patient presents with sudden weakness on the left side of the body, slurred speech, and facial drooping. The attending physician suspects an ischemic stroke and orders an urgent CT scan to rule out hemorrhage. Given the time-sensitive nature of this condition, early intervention with thrombolytic therapy can drastically improve patient outcomes. Which artery is most likely occluded in this clinical scenario?

A. Middle cerebral artery
B. Anterior cerebral artery
C. Basilar artery
D. Posterior communicating artery
E. Vertebral artery

   Answer: A

2. A 58-year-old male with a history of uncontrolled hypertension suddenly collapses and becomes unresponsive. On examination, he has unequal pupils and loss of consciousness. A CT scan reveals a massive intracerebral hemorrhage. Considering the risk factors, location, and pathophysiology, which brain structure is most commonly affected in hypertensive hemorrhages?

A. Cerebellum
B. Basal ganglia
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Thalamus
E. Occipital lobe

Answer: B

3. A 30-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of unilateral throbbing headache associated with nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. The attacks last for several hours and are often preceded by visual disturbances such as flashing lights. Based on the clinical features, which neurotransmitter imbalance plays a central role in the pathophysiology of this disorder?

A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Serotonin
D. GABA
E. Glutamate

Answer: C

4. A patient is diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease after showing symptoms of resting tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity. The disease is associated with the progressive degeneration of dopaminergic neurons. Which specific brain region is primarily affected in Parkinson’s disease?

A. Substantia nigra pars compacta
B. Hippocampus
C. Amygdala
D. Subthalamic nucleus
E. Caudate nucleus

Answer: A

5. A 40-year-old man presents with sudden, severe, “thunderclap” headache described as the worst headache of his life. He has neck stiffness but no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan shows no abnormalities, but suspicion for subarachnoid hemorrhage remains high. What is the next best diagnostic step?

A. MRI of the brain
B. Lumbar puncture
C. Carotid Doppler ultrasound
D. Electroencephalogram
E. Cerebral angiography

Answer: B